本试卷共 12 页，三大题，满分 135 分。考试用时 120 分钟。 注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名和考生号、试室 号、座位号填写在答题卡上。用 2B 铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应 位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处” 。 2. 选
择题每小题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息 点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷 上。 3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答， 答案必须写在答题卡各题目指 定区域相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案； 不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。 4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
I 语言知识及应用（共两节，满分 45 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分） 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从 1～15 各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 项中， 选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 ―It hurts me more than you‖, and ―This is for your own good‖ – these are the 1.______ my mother used to make years ago when I had to learn Latin, clean my room, stay home and do homework. That was before we entered the permissive (宽容的) period in 2. ______ in which we decided it was all right not to 3. ______ our children to achieve their best in school. The schools and the educators made it 4. ______ for us. They taught that it was all right to be 5. ______ who take a let-alone policy. We stopped making our children do homework. We gave them calculators, turned on the television, 6. ______ the teaching to the teachers and went on vacation. Now teachers, faced with children who have been developing at their own pace for the past 15 years, are 7. ______ we‘ve made a terrible mistake. One such teacher is Sharon Klompus who says her students are ―so 8_______‖ and wonders what has happened. Nothing is 9. ______ of them, she believes. Television, Klompus believes, 10. ______ to children‘s passivity. ―We‘re talking about a generation of kids who‘ve 11. ______ been hurt or hungry. They have learned somebody will always do it for them, instead of saying ?go and look it up‘, you tell them the 12. ______. It takes greater energy to say 13 ______ to a kid.‖ Yes, it does. It takes energy and it takes work. It‘s time for parents to end their 14. ______ and come back to work. It‘s time to take the car away, to turn the TV off, to tell them it 15. ______ you more than them but it‘s for their own good. It‘s time to start telling them no again. 1. A. habits 2. A. career 3. A. pull B. principals B. education B. attract C. statements C. relationship C. push D. tasks D. exploration D. advise
4. A. easy 5. A. experts 6. A. returned 7. A. imagining 8. A. negative 9. A. arranged 10.A. belongs 11. A. still 12. A. answer 13. A. great 14. A. discussion 15. A. hurts
B. useful B. students B. left B. expecting B. pessimistic B. demanded B. contributes B. just B. process B. no B. hope B. disappoints
C. interesting C. parents C. introduced C. predicting C. desperate C. insisted C. compares C. never C. reason C. yes C. promise C. surprises
D. suitable D. teachers D. promoted D. realizing D. passive D. made D. sticks D. once D. trouble D. enough D. vacation D. benefits
第二节 语法填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，在空格处填入 一个适当的词或者用括号中词语的正确形式填空， 并将答案填写在答题卡标号为 16～25 的相应位置上。 To most people, wedding is meant to be an occasion 16 the bride and the groom begin to live happily ever after. And many young couples try to make 17 weddings special. However, Ponradha, a 23-year-old lady, has 18 unforgettable wedding. Ponradha was set to be married 19 her boyfriend on Wednesday. Like other Indian traditional weddings, the celebrations were starting on Tuesday evening 20 the bride's family learned the groom had disappeared after an 21 (argue) with his family. The bride's family was angry, as a stopped marriage would affect the girl's future because they thought that would make 22 impossible for Ponradha to marry again. The anger faded away, however, when a second man, 30-year-old relative of the bride named Sivakumar, 23 (volunteer) to marry her instead. The wedding then took place as 24 (schedule), much to the relief of the family. The guests present appreciated Sivakumar for his timely gesture and congratulated Ponradha, saying she was the 25 (lucky) lady in the world. Ⅱ 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 项中，选出最佳选项，并在答 题卡上将该项涂黑。 A My mother used to ask me what the most important part of the body is. Through the years I would guess at what I thought was the correct answer. When I was younger, I thought sound was very important to us, so I said, ―My ears, Mommy.‖ She said, ―No. Many people are deaf. Keep thinking and I will ask you again.‖ Several years passed before she asked me again. Since making my first attempt, I was careful about the correct answer. So I told her, ―Mommy, sight is very important
to everybody, so it must be our eyes.‖ She looked at me and said, ―You are learning fast, but it is not correct because there are many people who are blind.‖ Over the years, Mother asked me a couple more times and always her answer was, ―No, but you are getting smarter every year, my son.‖ Then last year, my Grandpa died. My family sank in sadness and cried. When it was our turn to say our final good-bye to Grandpa, she asked me, ―Do you know the most important body part yet, my dear?‖ I was shocked when she asked me this now. I always thought this was a game between her and me. She saw the confusion on my face and told me, ―This question is very important. It shows that you have really lived your life.‖ I saw her eyes well up with tears. She said, ―My dear, the most important body part is our shoulder.‖ I asked, ―Is it because it holds up our head?‖ She replied, ―No, it is because it can hold the head of a friend or loved one when they cry. Everybody needs a shoulder to cry on sometimes in life, my dear. I only hope that you have enough love and friends so that you will have a shoulder to cry on when you need it.‖ Then and there I knew the most important body part is not a selfish one. It is sensitive to the suffering of others and caring for those in pain. 26. Mother didn‘t think ears and eyes are the most important because _________. A. sounds are not useful to people B. many people in the world are disabled C. sight is of little importance to people D. nobody likes to be blind or deaf 27. When did mother finally tell the author the correct answer? A. In his childhood. B. Several years ago. C. While playing a game. D. At his grandpa‘s funeral. 28. According to the fifth paragraph, why was the author shocked? A. Because he didn‘t want to play the game any more. B. Because his mother would never tell him the answer. C. Because this question made him always confused. D. Because he thought it was unfit to talk this at that moment. 29. What can the author learn from his mother ‘s answer? A. Only by sharing love and care can we be loved by others. B. We should show our love and respect for the old people. C. Shoulders are important because they hold up their heads. D. Everyone should be selfish to the suffering of others. 30. Mother asked this question from time to time in order to _________. A. check if he has got smarter over the years B. prove only she has the correct answer C. guide him to have a better understanding of life D. remind him of the importance of our body
Mickey Mouse is to help inspiring healthy trends as the Walt Disney Company announced changes to its nutrition guideline policy. You might notice something new in the next few years as you watch Disney programs: Starting in 2015, there won't be any candy, sugary-cereal or fast-food advertisements aimed at kids. The Walt Disney Company on Tuesday became the first major media company to ban advertisements for junk food on its TV channels, radio stations and websites. In addition, Disney plans to make changes to its kids‘ menus at theme parks and resorts. Fast-food options will be replaced with healthier choices, such as salads, apples, vegetables and yogurt. It hopes this will stop kids from making poor food choices. First Lady Michelle Obama called it a ―game changer‖ that is sure to send a message to the rest of the children‘s-entertainment industry. ―Just a few years ago, if you had told me or any other parents that our kids wouldn‘t see a single advertisement for junk food while they watched their favorite cartoons on a major TV network, we wouldn‘t have believed you,‖ said the First Lady, who heads a campaign to help stop child obesity. In addition to candy bars and fast-food meals, other foods that don‘t meet Disney‘s nutritional standards will be banned from the company‘s kid-targeted media. Any cereal with 10 grams or more of sugar per serving will be off the air. There will be no advertisements for full meals of more than 600 calories. Juices with high levels of sugar and foods with too much salt will also be pulled. Even though many fast-food chains offer healthier options, like apples and salads, Disney said it could still deny the companies‘ advertisements unless they offer a range of healthy options. Getting rid of junk-food ads could make it easier to keep a family on a healthy diet, says Nadine Haskell, a mother of two sons, ―If they see an advertisement on TV, then the next time we go to the grocery store they'll say they want to try it.‖ 31. What will we see in Disney programs in the next few years? A. Candy bars B. Fruit Salads C. Sweet cereal D. French fries 32. By saying a ―game changer‖, First Lady Michelle Obama means __________. A. Disney leads a campaign to stop child obesity B. she wants to change kids‘ entertainment industry C. child‘s ads are different and healthy thanks to Disney D. there has been a huge change in children‘s eating habits 33. Which of the following food will NOT be banned from Disney media? A. Juice with low levels of sugar B. a meal of 700 calories C. Cereal with 13 grams of sugar D. Delicious salty chips 34. According to the last paragraph, Nadine Haskell agrees that ___________. A. we should not go to the grocery with children B. ads on media has no influence on children C. Junk-food free ads do good to a family‘s diet D. it is easier to get rid of junk food in a family
35. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Mickey Mouse will lead the trend in the media. B. Disney Company is to encourage healthy food. C. Disney Company will change entertainment policy. D. There will be something new in Disney cartoons.
C A Virginia father marched across a remote desert area to claim the ownership of a land so his seven-year-old daughter can be a real princess. Jeremiah Heaton began his unusual search for a land after making a promise to Emily that she would one day become a princess. After reaching the desert area of Bir Tawil, the father-of-three planted a flag that his children had designed, and made the first steps towards owning the land. On his return Heaton and wife made a crown for their daughter and asked friends and family to call her Princess Emily. Heaton found Bir Tawil, one of the last unclaimed pieces of land on the planet, after searching for how he could fulfill his promise to Emily whose kingdom covers about 800 square miles of desert bordering Sudan and Egypt. It took Heaton 14 hours to travel by a truck through the desert before he could plant the flag, which has a blue background and stars representing the family. As well as designing a flag for their country, Heaton's children have also decided to name it the Kingdom of North Sudan. The next step for Heaton is to get Sudan and Egypt to recognize his Kingdom of North Sudan. Shelia Carapico, professor of political science and international studies at the University of Richmond, said the family's claim will need to be recognized by the other African nations. She said it made no sense for someone to plant a flag and say they have political control over the land without legal recognition from neighboring countries, the United Nations or other groups. The Heaton family, however, remained undisturbed and kept moving on. And the main aim, Heaton added, was to show his daughter he would follow through on the promise he made. ―I think there‘s a lot of love in the world. I want my children to know I will do absolutely anything for them,‖ he said. 36. What can we learn about Jeremiah Heaton in the first two paragraphs? A. He made efforts to realize his daughter ‘s promise. B. His daughter has become a princess in Virginia. C. He marched to a desert and bought a land. D. His children planted the flag to claim the place. 37. Jeremiah Heaton‘s discovery of the land can be described as ____________. A. not easy but worthwhile B. ridiculous but painful C. unbelievable and aggressive D. impractical and foolish 38. Up to now, Heaton has done the following except _____________. A. designing a flag for their kingdom
B. making the crown for Princess Emily C. thinking of the name for their country D. getting the recognition for the kingdom 39. Which of the following does Shelia Carapico agree with? A. It made no sense for anyone to set up a new Kingdom. B. Any claims of owning a country should be legally approved. C. The family‘s claim should only be recognized by African Union. D. Planting a flag on a land means gaining its political control. 40. What is the best title of the passage? A. An Introduction of a Kingdom B. Emily, Princess of North Sudan C. A Father Who Keeps His Word D. The Discovery of unclaimed Land D About 35 percent of British adults sleep with teddy bears. Many more share a bed with a partner or spouse. Others still co-sleep, alongside children in a family bed. But what about sleeping with your iPad? A recent survey found that 68 percent of iPad owners use the device in the bedroom, more than in any other location. The living room took a close second place, at 63 percent, and only 45 percent of participants said they use them on the go. ―It‘s just a lot comfortable to be in bed with the iPad,‖ Joe Alvarado said. ―It's really convenient for searching the Web, reading newspapers, Facebook, Twitter, and all that stuff.‖ But bringing devices into the bedroom is a bad idea, if your goal is to have a quality rest. One of the most leading causes of feeling sleepy is darkness, which signals to the brain that it's time to start producing the sleep-related hormone. But in our modern world, we are exposed to light long after the sun sets. While any type of light can disturb your sleep, the blue wave light released by cell phones, laptops, iPads and other devices is particularly disturbing. Research shows that this blue light causes awareness -- so greatly that it can actually be used to fight sleepiness or tiredness. According to the National Sleep Foundation, 95 percent of Americans use some device, whether it's a TV, laptop, cell phone or others, within an hour of going to bed. ―Artificial light exposure between dusk and the time we go to bed at night ... shifts biological clock and rhythms to a later hour -- making it more difficult to fall asleep,‖ Charles Czeisler, professor and director at Harvard Medical School said in a statement. Instead, experts recommend turning off all devices an hour before bedtime and finding another method for falling asleep, like reading a book, taking a warm bath or performing a series of calming yoga poses. It's also a good idea to exercise and get relaxed several hours before bedtime. 41. According to the first two paragraphs, which of the following is NOT true?
A. 63% of the participants use iPad in the living room B. 35% of the British adults sleep with teddy bears C. 68% of the participants use iPad in the bedroom D. 45% of the surveyed use iPad while going to work. 42. The underlined ―it‖ in the fourth paragraph refers to __________. A. awareness B. other device C. blue wave light D. sleep-related hormone 43. By quoting Charles Czeisler ‘s statement, the author intends to __________. A. warn us not to use devices before going to sleep B. show the changes in our biological clock C. tell the readers the difficulty in falling asleep D. introduce the usage of some device in our life 44. We can infer from the passage that _________. A. experts suggest we read books and go running before sleep. B. we should have suitable relaxation to help us fall asleep. C. all devices should be turned off when we are sleeping. D. We must go to bed at least an hour earlier than usual. 45. Which section of the magazine is this is passage most probably taken from? A. News report B. Technology C. Entertainment D. Health 第二节 信息匹配（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 阅读下列应用文及相关信息，并按照要求匹配信息。请在答题卡上将对应题 号的相应选项字母涂黑。 首先，请阅读下列有关英美连续剧的介绍： Downton Abbey, a British drama television series, set in the fictional Yorkshire, show the lives of the Crawley family and their servants—with the great events in history, including the sinking of the Titanic, A. the First World War, and the Marconi scandal. The Vampire Diaries is an American TV series about super-natural fantasy youth. Directed by Kevin Williamson, the series takes place in Mystic Falls town and the plot is about the relationships among Elena B. Gilbert and Salvatore vampire brothers. Set in Brooklyn, New York, 2 Broke Girls is a popular comedy TV series. Max is from a poor family while Caroline used to be a wealthy girl. The two girls work in the restaurant as waitresses and hope one day C. they can begin their cupcake business. The Big Bang Theory, a TV comedy series, tells the science genius Leonard and Sheldon. In addition to educational science knowledge, the series also talks about their romantic and funny love stories after a pretty D. girl called Penny moves in as their neighbor.
Ranked as the most terrifying adventurous TV series, the Walking Dead gives a vivid description of how the viruses of the dead spread in America. Rick Grimes, a sheriff in a town leads the survivors to fight against the zombies and march for shelters. E. Sherlock returns! As the most exciting detective TV series, Sherlock will solve doubts, like how did he do it (killed himself in front of John and comes back to life now), how will John take the news that his best friend faked his own death. Once again, the game is on for F. Sherlock and John. 阅读以下英语学习者的爱好描述，然后匹配他们喜爱观看的英美连续剧。 46. Gabi is a university student majoring in music. She hasn’ t relaxed herself long for she is focused on her study. She has been Sherlock‘s fan since the first season. She would not miss any detective TV series about him. 47. Rachael 21 years old, lively and enthusiastic, longing for a sweet lover. She loves romantic movies best of all and she especially enjoys funny love TV drama series about young people. 48. Parker is a science student in Birmingham University. He loves watching science fictional series and is especially interested in those plays which are about supernatural themes, like the zombies, monsters or the vampires. 49. Eric plans to spend the weekend at home. He believes a film with a historical setting spares you much room to think about life, people, and the great events in history, so he mostly would watch TV drama series like that. 50. Jenny, a 15-year-old student, hopes to try something new. Tonight she wants to enjoy some horror TV series and the new series about how zombies and deadly viruses invade our planet has long caught her attention. Ⅲ 写作 (共两节, 满分 40 分) 第一节 基础写作 (共 1 小题, 满分 15 分) 你接受了一项写作任务，为英语校报写一篇海报，介绍宣传并吸引同学们参 加学校英语合唱队。 【写作内容】 创办时间 组 织 者 创办宗旨 人 数 报名资格 排练时间 排练地点 活动内容 2012 年 9 月 学生会 激发学生对英语的热爱；提高学生 英语口语水平。 总名额 50 人，目前有 30 名队员 对英语感兴趣， 每周三下午 4:00-4:40 学校艺术楼 2 楼 练习英语口语、培训歌唱技巧、欣赏并学唱英文经典歌
曲、在主要的西方节日进行歌唱表演等等。 参考词汇：英文合唱队 English Chorus Troupe 【写作要求】 只能用 5 个句子表达全部内容，海报开头已给出。 【评分标准】 句子结构准确，信息内容完整，篇章结构连贯。 第二节 读写任务（共 1 小题；满分 25 分） 阅读下面的短文，然后按照要求写一篇 150 词左右的英语短文。 Get ready to drop down and give 30 squats(深蹲) if you want to ride the Moscow subway. In an effort to promote overall physical fitness of citizens, Moscow city officials are allowing subway riders to pay 30 squats instead of 30 rubles (about 92 cents) for a trip on the train. Riders perform the squats in front of a special machine which can tell if the person is in the correct position. The machine is located right next to the electronic vending machines at a station in western Moscow. ―We wanted to show that doing exercise is not just working out in a gym or running in the morning, but that it is also about getting everyone involved in a sporting lifestyle,‖ Alexander Zhukov, an related official told the reporters. The task isn't so simple, according to some people who dared to try it out. ―It was hard at first but I managed it,‖ Lyudmila, a young woman who tried out the machine, told AFP. ―Two minutes is enough time.‖ Moscow has been offering several physical challenges to the public in order to promote a healthier lifestyle, AFP reported. Other events have included turning handles hanging on buses into exercise bands and providing bikes that can create electricity to charge cell phones. The goal is to ―add elements of sport into daily life.‖ The choice for squat payment is available throughout the month of November. 【写作内容】 1. 以约 30 词概括短文的主要内容； 2. 然后以约 120 个词就―运动与健康‖为主题谈谈你的看法, 内容包括： (1) 简述运动与健康的关系； (2) 描述一项你最喜爱的运动； (3) 如果你是校长，你认为应如何推行“全校健身”活动？ 【写作要求】 1. 作文中可以使用亲身经历或虚构的故事，也可以参照阅读材料的内容， 但不得直接引用原文中的句子。 2. 作文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称。
I 语言知识及应用（共两节，满分 45 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分） 1-5 CDCAC 6-10 BDDBB 11-15 CABDA 第二节 语法填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 16. where 17. their 18. an 19. to 20. when 21. argument 22. volunteered 23. it 24. scheduled 25. luckiest Ⅱ 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节 阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分） 26--30 BDDAC 31--35 BCACB 36--40 AADBC 41--45 DCABD 第二节 信息匹配（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 46-50 FDBAE III 写作（共两节，满分 40 分） 第一节 基础写作（共 1 小题，满分 15 分） Do you want to sing English songs to improve oral English? Come and Join us! Founded by the Students‘ Union in September, 2012, the English Chorus Troupe have been playing an important role in inspiring students‘ enthusiasm in learning English and enhancing their oral English. At present, 30 students have become our members and we are looking for more talents who are interested in English. Besides, as a chorus troupe, we have a weekly training from 4:00 to 4:40 every Wednesday afternoon, on the second floor of the Art Building. Significantly, not only do we practice oral English, but also we improve our singing skills. What‘s most attractive is that we appreciate and learn to sing classic English songs in order to put on shows on major Western festivals. 第二节 读写任务（共 1 小题；满分 25 分） 概括要点：做运动免费乘地铁、政府的目的、措施。
In order to promote a healthy lifestyle, Moscow government has carried out measures to get people involved in sports, like doing squats to pay for subway fare and so on. (30words) As for me, doing exercise helps us keep fit and makes us energetic. As people often say, ―Exercise helps us strengthen our bodies and avoid disease.‖ That‘s why we are often told to do more exercise if possible. What‘s more, it can get rid of our bad mood and therefore we feel refreshed. My favorite to play badminton everyday. For one thing, while playing badminton, I have to move around and stay focused, which makes me feel excited. For another, every time after playing badminton, my whole body is relaxed and I can have a sound sleep. Were I the principal of our school, I would have many things to deal with the exercise in the school. For example, I would have equipment set up not only in the gymnasium but also in teaching buildings. For another example, students would be required to leave the classroom at 4:00p.m. and have at least one hour exercise. Briefly, I‘m looking forward to the day when we make doing exercise our lifestyle.(177 words)