（英语试题卷共满分 150 分。考试时间 120 分钟。 ） 一、听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节 听下面 5 段对话。 每段对话后有一个小题， 从题中所给出的 A、 B、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项， 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。 每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What d
oes the man mean? A. The woman‘s uncle may have some troubles. B. He thinks the woman should visit her uncle. C. He asks the woman to go over to his place. 2. What has made working at home possible? A. Personal computers. B. Modern office design. C. Communication industry. 3. Why does the woman thank the man? A. He lent her some money. B. He gave her a five-pound bill. C. He returned her lost money. 4. How is the man going home? A. By bus. B. In a car. C. On foot. 5. How many hours will the woman have for shopping in Shanghai? A. Two hours. B. Six hours. C. Four hours. 第二节 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有 2 至 4 个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项 中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有 5 秒钟的时间阅读各小题； 听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第 6 和第 7 题。现在你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。 6. What are the speakers going to do this weekend? A. Go to the beach. B. Climb a mountain. C. Go for a bicycle-ride. 7. What do we know about Bob and Jane? A. They might be the speakers‘ friends. B. They have decided to join the speakers. C. They did some riding yesterday. 听下面一段对话，回答第 8 至第 10 题。现在你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 8. What is the woman good at? A. Swimming. B. Running. C. Skiing. 9. How old was she when she became famous? A. Twenty. B. Thirty five. C. Fifteen. 10. What can we learn about the woman from the dialogue? A. She took part in one of the Olympic Games.
B. She still skis for international competitions. C. She used to swim thirty five miles every week. 听下面一段对话，回答第 11 至第 13 题。现在你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 11. What did the woman do last weekend? A. She went to the beach. B. She visited her parents. C. She had a trip to the countryside. 12. Why did the woman come home so soon? A. She was tired. B. She caught a cold. C. She had school work to do. 13. What was the weather like at the weekend? A. Cold. B. Sunny. C. Rainy. 听下面一段对话，回答第 14 至第 16 题。现在你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 14. What does the woman think about her boss? A. Rude. B. Foolish. C. Troublesome. 15. What do we know about the woman? A. She was in charge of a school. B. She succeeded in dancing. C. She has left her job. 16. What does the man want to be? A. A dancer. B. A dancing trainer. C. A secretary. 听下面一段独白，回答第 17 至第 20 题。现在你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 17. What can we learn from the news? A. Seven houses were destroyed. B. Fifteen houses were badly damaged. C. Over 200 people were made homeless. 18. How many people were badly injured in the storm? A. Seven. B. Nine. C. One. 19. What do we know about the farmer? A. His house was destroyed. B. His wife was missing. C. One of his children was killed. 20. What did the woman do when she saw her house shaking? A. She tried to take something out. B. She rushed out with her children. C. She told her husband not to leave. 二、单项填空 (共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分) 请从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项的标 号涂黑。 21. — Do you think our math teacher will free us of homework this week? Our yearly sports meeting starts tomorrow. — _____! After all, we are already Senior 3 students. A. No problem B. Forget it C. No dream D. I hope so 22. — Did Jenny return early last night? — Exactly. It was not yet nine o‘clock _____ she arrived home.
A. before B. until C. that D. when 23. — Hey, man! Why so tired? — I _____ for weeks for the coming celebration of the school‘s 100th anniversary. A. was preparing B. have been preparing C. had prepared D. was prepared 24. Such shocking news made me realize _____ terrible problems we would face. A. what B. how C. that D. why 25. Sorry, sir. The bathroom _____ now. Please wait a moment. A. occupies B. has occupied C. is occupied D. is occupying 26. As we know, our ―Chinese Dream‖ is _____ dream to improve people‘s life and _____ dream of harmony, peace and development. A. the; a B. a; a C. a; the D. the; the 27. You _____ get my bike repaired this week. I won‘t need it until next month. A. mustn‘t B. can‘t C. shouldn‘t D. needn‘t 28. I had to stop my car _____ a short break as I was feeling tired. A. take B. taking C. to take D. taken 29. We‘ve been told that there will be an interval, _____ people can go to the restroom or buy some snacks. A. when B. where C. that D. which 30. Someday, we are sure to understand the most important things are _____ that can‘t always be bought with money. A. these B. ones C. those D. what 31. Nowhere else, as Tim said, _____ except to the small garden in the backyard after school. A. he has gone B. he did go C. had he gone D. would he go 32. — Where did you live as a child? —— A village _____ by hills on three sides. A. surrounded B. surrounding C. was surrounded D. to be surrounded 33. _____ and you will break the world record. A. If you make more efforts B. Making more efforts C. More efforts D. When making more efforts 34. They must have been enjoying themselves there, or they _____ so long. A. can‘t have stayed B. wouldn‘t have stayed C. needn‘t have stayed D. couldn‘t stay 35. — Are you sure you won‘t come for a drink with us? —_____, if you insist. A. All right then B. It depends C. Not at all D. I don‘t care 三、完形填空（共 20 小题；每题 1.5 分，满分 30 分） 请阅读下面两篇短文，掌握大意，然后从 36—55 各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C 和 D）中， 选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项的标号涂黑。 A Louis Braille was born in the small village of Coupvray in France. His father was a skilled leather worker who had many 36 tools. One day, when his father went out, three-year-old Louis 37 a sharp and pointed awl (锥子) from his father‘s tool-box. The awl slipped from his tiny hands and hurt one of his 38 . The infection soon spread to the other eye and the poor child became totally 39 at the age of three. He had a great goal and dream in his life. At the age of 12 he started his new mission — to 40 a system to enable the blind to read and write. He had the concept that if the letters could be 41 by the
fingertips even the blind could 42 with ease. He successfully completed his system of 43 dots by the age of fifteen. The system invented by Louis Braille has a series of raised dots. Each letter is formed by raised 44 dots out of a total of six dots arranged in a rectangle (矩形) consisting of two columns of three dots each. Braille‘s work has changed the lives of millions of disabled people and enabled them to lead a 45 life. The 46 contributions of Braille provided a vision and mission for the millions of disabled people. By 47 and effort, they also can create wonders and serve society. 36. A. expensive B. sharp C. amazing D. harmful 37. A. picked up B. found out C. set in D. looked for 38. A. hands B. legs C. feet D. eyes 39. A. hopeless B. blind C. desperate D. incurable 40. A. improve B. spread C. invent D. learn 41. A. kept B. touched C. felt D. loaded 42. A. read B. imagine C. grasp D. accept 43. A. pressed B. selected C. lifted D. raised 44. A. easy B. specific C. familiar D. suitable 45. A. perfect B. confident C. normal D. productive 46. A. outstanding B. necessary C. immediate D. considerate 47. A. luck B. pain C. determination D. responsibility B Stress is a natural part of everyday life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the bad thing it is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is 48 to provide motivation and give purpose to life. It is only when the stress gets out of 49 that it can lead to poor performance and ill health. The amount of stress a person can 50 depends very much on the individual (个体). Some people are not afraid of stress, and such 51 are obviously prime materials for managerial responsibilities, others lose 52 at the first sign of unusual difficulties. When exposed to stress, in whatever form, we react both chemically and 53 . In fact we make choice between ―flight or fight‖ and in more primitive days the choices made the 54 between life or death. We can‘t remove stress from our lives (it would be 55 to do so even if we could). We need to find ways to deal with it. 48. A. vital B. moral C. mental D. actual 49. A. mind B. hope C. life D. control 50. A. bear B. notice C. feel D. enjoy 51. A. heroes B. actors C. characters D. feelings 52. A. sight B. heart C. face D. temper 53. A. naturally B. socially C. normally D. physically 54. A. mistake B. peace C. difference D. trouble 55. A. unhappy B. unwise C. unfair D. unusual 四、阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分） 请阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C 和 D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上 将该选项的标号涂黑。 A Sweetest Day in America is always the third Saturday in October. This holiday is much more important in some regions than in others (Detroit, Cleveland and Buffalo being the biggest Sweetest Day cities). It is a holiday that is gaining in popularity every year throughout the country. Sweetest Day is celebrated on the third Saturday in October as a day to make someone happy. It is an
occasion which offers all of us an opportunity to remember not only the sick, aged, and orphaned, but also friends, relatives and associates whose helpfulness and kindness we have enjoyed. Over 60 years ago, a man in Cleveland, believing that the city‘s orphans and shut-ins (卧病在床的人) too often felt forgotten and neglected, thought of the idea of showing them that they were remembered. He did this through the distribution of small gifts. With the help of his friends and neighbors, he distributed these small remembrances on a Saturday in October. During the years that followed, other Clevelanders began to participate in the celebration ceremony, which came to be called ―Sweetest Day‖. In time, the Sweetest Day idea of spreading cheer to the underprivileged was broadened to include everyone, and became an occasion for remembering others with a kind act or a small remembrance. And soon the idea spread to other cities all over the country. Sweetest Day is not based on any single group‘s religious affection or on a family relationship. It is a reminder that a thoughtful word or deed enriches life and gives it meaning. Because for many people remembering takes the form of gift-giving, Sweetest Day offers us the opportunity to show others that we care, in a practical way. 56. We can learn from the first paragraph that Sweetest Day is ________. A. sometimes the third Saturday in October B. hardly celebrated in Detroit C. of equal importance in every part of the USA. D. getting increasingly popular in the USA 57. Sweetest Day was originally intended to remember ________. A. the young and disabled B. friends and relatives C. orphans and shut-ins D. the sick and aged 58. We can infer from the passage that the birthplace of Sweetest Day is ________. A. Detroit B. Cleveland C. Buffalo D. Washington 59. Now on Sweetest Day gifts are given to those ________. A. we care B. we admire C. in need of help D. in trouble B Making email easier is a task that several applications and email customers have tried and failed at SaneBox, like many add-ons, aims to make your digital life easier without forcing you to change your email platform. To be sure, you can apply various priority (优先处理) classes and groupings using SaneBox. What really makes SaneBox worth checking out is its ability to ensure unimportant and low-priority emails don‘t take up even a second of your day. When you apply SaneBox to your email client (客户端), it spends a good deal of time scanning your entire inbox, including ones you‘ve already read. This helps the add-on determine which emails are most important to you. From then on you‘ll only see emails that SaneBox determines are must-reads, with all others falling into a ―Later‖ folder which you can read at your spare time. Each day --- or however often you want it --- SaneBox will produce a report of all the low-priority emails it has collected for you, like a secretary gathering all the odds and ends for a short daily report. If you find an important email has been flagged as low-priority, you can adjust the settings so it never happens again. SaneBox works with all IMAP, WebDAV and OWA email customers including Yahoo, Gmail, AOL, MS Exchange and others. The program also supports OS X‘s Mail customers, though it requires a bit of adjusting POP-only email services are not supported. You can try out SaneBox for two weeks with no charge and after that point 3 options of subscriptions (订 阅) are available, ranging from US$2 to $20 per month.
60. What does the underlined word ―add-ons‖ most probably mean? A. Extra programmes. B. Email-boxes. C. Additional machines. D. Other email clients. 61. The most important function of SaneBox is ________. A. to clear your mail box when it is full B. to scan your inbox faster than others C. to classify your emails to your preference D. to gather all the odds and ends for you 62. If an important email falls into the wrong collection, you can correct it ________. A. by putting it aside B. by changing the settings C. by flagging it as low-priority D. by adding the right information 63. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To promote SaneBox. B. To explain how to use SaneBox. C. To compare email clients. D. To introduce new email platforms. C Page last updated at 04:08, Friday, Nov. 22, 2013 US jumbo jet leaves tiny airport A Boeing 747 Dreamlifter cargo (货物) plane has safely taken off from a tiny airport in Kansas after it landed there by mistake. The huge cargo jet had been heading for McConnell air force base in Wichita, but instead touched down at nearby Colonel James Jabara airport. No one was injured and no property damage occurred when the plane landed. There had been questions as to whether the aircraft would be able to depart from the much shorter runway at Jabara. The Dreamlifter normally needs a runway of 2,780m (9,119ft) to get into the air at maximum weight; Jabara‘s runway is only 1,860m long. A tug (牵引车) was sent to the airport to turn around the huge cargo plane. Brad Christopher of the Wichita Airport Authority told the Associated Press news agency that the company operating the aircraft had assured(使确信) us they've run all the engineering calculation and performance and the aircraft is very safe for a normal departure at its present weight and conditions here. The Dreamlifter, which landed at Jabara on Wednesday evening, is a modified 747-400 passenger aeroplane, which can carry more cargo than any aeroplane in the world, according to Boeing. The aerospace company uses its fleet of four Dreamlifters to transport large assembled components(组 装零件) of its 787 Dreamliner from suppliers around the world to the final location in Washington State. 64. From the passage we can learn that the Dreamlifter landed at Jabara airport ________. A. on Nov. 19, 2013 B. on Nov. 20, 2013 C. on Nov. 21, 2013 D. on Nov. 22, 2013 65. What does the underlined word ―jumbo‖ mean? A. Wonderful. B. Crashed. C. Small. D. Huge. 66. We can infer from the passage that the Dreamlifter landed at Jabara with ________. A. as much cargo as it could carry B. more cargo than it could carry C. less cargo than it could carry D. heavier cargo than it could carry 67. What‘s the main idea of the news? A. A Boeing 747 Dreamlifter is stuck in a tiny air force base. B. A US huge cargo plane has left a tiny airport after a wrong landing. C. A modified 747-400 passenger aeroplane landed at Jabara by mistake.
D. A tug was sent to the Jabara airport to help a stuck Boeing 747 Dreamlifter take off. D 1. Mean old ladies There is always a reason why an old lady gives you a serious look – you are being too loud, dressed improperly or not crossing the street in the right place. Sometimes it can be lovely, but if you are already having a bad day, a mean old lady can drive you mad. What to do about it: I‘ve come to realize that when people start conflicts, it is actually an expression of their inner state expressed in an outside way. You, your personality, your looks or your actions have nothing to do with it. It is not personal, so why take it personally? 2. That person, who cuts in front of everybody in line This is something that gets me angry. Even if I am not in a hurry, I still feel bad for the other people in line who are being treated unjustly. Are you more patient than I am or do you feel annoying too? What to do about it: If we have negative thoughts then we are wasting our energy on negativity. Situations like this could be a great opportunity to learn to control our first negative responses and practice understanding. After all, the person may just have a quick question or maybe there is an emergency. 3. Friends that tell you ―I told you so‖ It is one thing to admit that you made a mistake and another to hear it from a friend. Friends should be there to support you and cheer you up when you are feeling down, not make themselves feel better at your expense, right? What to do about it: It helps to remember that when people say ―I told you so‖, they may mean, ―Please listen to my advice to avoid future mistakes.‖ If this is not the help you need – voice it out, without getting defensive. 68. According to the author, what can you do when meeting with a mean old lady? A. Take it personally. B. Take it seriously. C. Don‘t apologize to her. D. Don‘t get upset. 69. When seeing someone cutting in line, we‘d better ________. A. stop him immediately B. treat it with a good state of mind C. pretend not to see it D. teach him a good lesson 70. The third tip intends to advise you ________. A. not to keep silent at a friend‘s improper suggestion B. to tell your friend if they have misunderstood you C. not to talk to your friend if they feel better at your expense D. to apologize to your friend when you‘ve done something wrong 71. What is the best title for this passage? A. What to do when meeting with these people? B. How to ask your friends for help when in trouble? C. How to give advice to your friends when asked to? D. What to say when faced with different situations? E People would keep reproducing. Countries would probably pass ?no reproduction‘ laws to keep population balanced, but obviously not everyone would observe. The world‘s population would grow very quickly at that. Animals and plants would die out, because humans needed the food. There would be no room for more people in the world. Scientists would most likely try to create living ?communities‘ underwater, on the moon, and in space stations. The state of starvation and lack of space would be difficult to deal with. Natural selection would happen with humans, which is when certain types of animals or plants are selected for, or selected against. For instance, rich humans and strong, tough humans
would be more likely to live, because the rich could afford to buy the limited food, and the tough humans could kill people for their food, and steal the food. This possibility relates directly to the assumption that humans would not die of diseases and such, but must be killed or run out of the necessities for living. If you mean that no one could ever die, even if they were shot, burned, starved and eaten, then that would never ever happen; it‘s a fantasy. However, if that were the case, then at some point, if there were not more areas to live than the land that humans live on now, then we would end up so packed that it would be virtually impossible to move, and humans would be forced to be on top of other people. It would be ridiculously crowded. Although, if humans lived forever, then I assume that we would all be extremely smart, and would have figured out solutions to the living situations, like on another planet, on the moon, under water, etc. 72. What can we infer from the underlined part in Paragraph 1? A. More food would be produced for humans B. More room would be found for the growing population. C. New babies would come into this world without an end. D. Humans would continue to develop their intelligence. 73. How is Paragraph 2 mainly developed? A. By making comparisons. B. By making conclusions. C. By giving advice. D. By giving examples. 74. What does the author mean by ―it‘s a fantasy‖ in paragraph 3? A. It will surely happen. B. It will probably become a fact. C. It is a story that is based on facts. D. It is a belief based on imagination. 75. What is the author‘s main purpose of writing the passage? A. To analyze the possibility that animals and plants die out. B. To explain why scientists will create living areas for humans. C. To argue that no human being is likely to live forever. D. To convince people that it is possible for humans to live on other planets.
五、写作（共两个写作任务，满分 35 分） 写作一（满分 15 分） 请结合材料，按要求用英文写作，词数不少于 60。 According to some surveys, when students need to finish some tasks, they like to find the answers, only depending on the internet instead of their own creative thinking. 要求：(1) 就此材料发表你的感想； (2) 应紧扣材料、有明确的观点； (3) 在答题卡上作答。 ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________ 写作二（满分 20 分） 假如你是李华，你校即将举行一年一度的―校园书市（a campus book fair）‖活动，其目的是给同 学们提供一个交换、 利用图书的机会。 请你用英语写信给你的加拿大笔友 Mike,介绍此次活动的有关 情况，希望听取笔友的建议，词数不少于 80 词。内容应包括： ● 活动目的 ● 活动内容: 买书，卖书，交换图书 ● 你的感想 ● 征求建议 注意：(1) 开头语已为你写好（不计入总词数） ； (2) 请在答题卡上作答。 Hello Mike！ How are you going these days?_____________________________________ _________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua
一、听力（共 20 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分) 1—5 BCCAB 6—10 BAACC 11—15 ACBAC 16—20 BCBAB 二、单项填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 21—25 BDBAC 26—30 BDCAC 31—35 DACBA 三、完形填空（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分） 36—40 BADBC 41—45 CADBD 46—50 ACADA 51—55 CBDCB 四、阅读理解（共 20 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分） 56—60 DCBAA 61—65 CBABD 66—70 CBDBA 71—75 ACDDC 五、写作（共两个写作任务，满分 35 分） 写作一（15 分）One possible version: Nowadays, Students tend to make use of the Internet to gain information they need. Students find it convenient to surf the Internet for useful information. As a result, it‘s likely that students will lose interest in studying, which is not beneficial to their own thinking. So measures must be taken to solve the problem. Firstly, it is vital that students gain confidence in themselves and their abilities while doing tasks. Besides, what teachers and parents should do is encourage students to be creative. Finally, doing tasks independently is of great significance. 写作二（20 分）One possible version: Hello Mike！
How are you going these days? Our yearly campus book fair will be held recently in order to provide us students with an opportunity to exchange books and make better use of used books. At the book fair, students could sell unwanted books, buy needed books or simply trade books with each other. Like other fairs of this kind, prices are typically very low. Happily, students need not get rid of their used books but also bought a few books I really wanted. As far as I’m concerned, I highly recommend this activity, which is beneficial to us students. On the one hand, our social skills can be well practiced and improved. On the other hand, this activity also gave us an excellent opportunity to feel a bit of the real world. Looking forward to your suggestion for our better campus book fair. Yours, Li Hua 附评分原则及要求 五﹑写作（共两个写作任务，满分 35 分） 写作一（满分 15 分） 一、评分原则 1.归档原则： 本题满分 15 分，基于与材料的结合程度，根据语言质量分为 4 个档次。词数少于 60， 下调一个档次。 2.总体要求：内容切题﹑观点明确； 逻辑清晰﹑行文连贯；语法正确﹑词汇丰富。 3. 英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 二、各档次给分范围和要求 第四档（12 分～15 分）很好地达到总体要求。 ● 有效结合材料，观点明确； ● 内容连贯，条理清晰； ● 语言运用得体，词汇丰富，几乎没有语言错误。 第三档（8 分～11 分）基本达到总体要求。 ● 有效结合材料，观点基本明确； ● 内容基本连贯，有一定的条理性； ● 语言基本运用得体，有少量错误，但能表达观点。 第二档（4 分～7 分）未能达到总体要求。 ● 未有效结合材料； ● 内容松散，条理性差； ● 语言运用较差，错误较多，但基本能表达观点。 第一档（1 分～3 分）未达到总体要求。 ● 未结合材料； ● 内容松散，缺乏条理性； ● 语言运用差，错误很多，严重影响观点表达。 0 分：内容与材料无关，未传达任何信息；所写内容无法看清等。 (注意：评分时，学生的观点无对错之分，只要言之成理，均不影响得分。 ） 写作二（共 20 分） 一、评分原则 1. 归档原则： 本题满分 20 分，根据短文覆盖内容要点的情况及语言质量分为 5 个档次。词数少 于 60，下调一个档次。 2.总体要求：内容完整﹑覆盖要点；行文连贯；语法正确﹑词汇丰富。 3. 英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 二、内容要点 1 活动目的 2 活动内容: 买书，卖书，交换图书 3 你的感想 4 征求建议 三、各档次给分范围和要求 第五档（17 分～20 分）很好地达到总体要求。 ● 覆盖了内容所有要点； ● 语言运用得体，词汇丰富，几乎没有语言错误； ● 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，文章结构紧凑。 第四档（13 分～16 分）很好地达到总体要求。 ● 虽漏掉个别次重点，但覆盖了所有主要内容； ● 语言运用较为得体，词汇与语法有少许错误； ● 有必要的语句间的连接成分，文章结构较紧凑。 第三档（9 分～12 分）基本达到总体要求。
● 虽漏掉个别内容要点，但覆盖了大部分主要内容； ● 语言运用较为得体，词汇与语法有一些错误，但不影响理解； ● 能够使用简单的语句间的连接成分。 第二档（5 分～8 分）未达到总体要求。 ● 虽漏或未描述清楚一些主要内容； ● 语法结构单调，词汇贫乏，语言错误较多，影响理解； ● 文章缺少连贯性。 第一档（1 分～4 分）未达到总体要求。 ● 明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容； ● 语言错误很多，严重影响理解； ● 文章不贯性。 0 分：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关；所写内容无法看清等。